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Concentration question

post #1 of 7
3/2/09 at 8:17am
Thread Starter 
Hi all
I hope this is not a silly question - I tried searching for the answer but could not find it.
For the sake of argument, let's say Jicky EdT is 5% aromatic compound, and Jicky EdP is 10% aromatic compound.
Would 2 sprays of the EdT be the olfactory equivalent of 1 spray of the EdP? Scent, longevity and sillage all identical?
If not, why not?
I'm only using Jicky as an example, I'm sure the actual percentages are different.

Thanks!

Matthew
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post #2 of 7
3/2/09 at 8:20am
No, two reasons:

1) There are reformulations for EdT and EdP, because...

2) ... olfactory receptors are NOT linear for concentrations, and they don't follow the same scale for all aromachemicals. Doubling the amount of a certain aromachemical doesn't necessarily make it twice as loud.
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post #3 of 7
3/2/09 at 10:05am
see it as 2 beer. 1 beer was 4,5% alcohol, that means 2 beer have 4,5% because the amount of liquid changed, but not the % of the alcohol. haha. i guess you know what i mean.
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post #4 of 7
3/2/09 at 10:08am
Quote:
Originally Posted by Justin Wüst View Post

see it as 2 beer. 1 beer was 4,5% alcohol, that means 2 beer have 4,5% because the amount of liquid changed, but not the % of the alcohol. haha. i guess you know what i mean.

Um. No. That was not an answer to the question.
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post #5 of 7
3/2/09 at 12:27pm
Quote:
Originally Posted by Stereotomy View Post

No, two reasons:

1) There are reformulations for EdT and EdP, because...

2) ... olfactory receptors are NOT linear for concentrations, and they don't follow the same scale for all aromachemicals. Doubling the amount of a certain aromachemical doesn't necessarily make it twice as loud.

This post pretty much nails the issue.

Recently, there's a fair bit of talk about Guerlain's L'Instant ph EdT versus EdP. When smelling them side-by-side, they are clearly the same fragrance...but it isn't just that the EdP is stronger (it is, but not dramatically so). Since the concentration is different, the notes play out differently, and the overall character is subtly different.

In this example, whereas you can smell all the same notes in both concentrations, the EdP has an abstracted 'strawberry jam-like' topnote that is present in the EdT, but sits in the background and fades with the topnotes, whereas in the EdP, it lasts well into the heart. Conversely, the EdT has an anisic note that seems drowned out in the EdP. (this is after just a couple of wearings and my armchair analysis)

IMO, it's best to think of different concentrations as 'variations on the theme'. (except in ridiculous cases like Chanel #5, where the different concentrations are completely different fragrances altogether)
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post #6 of 7
3/2/09 at 6:07pm
Also, you have to take into consideration the mount of alcohol and other carriers you are applying.
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post #7 of 7
3/2/09 at 6:44pm
I know this sounds really basic, but if you look at the wikpedia article titled 'perfumery' there is an excellent description of why different concentrations smell differently. Stereotomy and Andylama nail it, though. Not only do different concentrations cause the notes to play out differently, but the houses will often tweak the notes in the different concentrations for different effects. L'Instant is a great example. Other examples are Dior Homme, where the EdC, EdT, and EdP all highlight different aspects of the same 'theme'. Also Hermes' Eau/Elixir/Parfum de Merveilles family are all slightly different.

Another reason multiple sprays of an EdT don't equal an EdP is because more of one concentration doesn't create the same effect as a stronger concentration, smell wise or longevity wise.
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