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  1. #1
    Basenotes Junkie Matthew's Avatar
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    Default Concentration question

    Hi all
    I hope this is not a silly question - I tried searching for the answer but could not find it.
    For the sake of argument, let's say Jicky EdT is 5% aromatic compound, and Jicky EdP is 10% aromatic compound.
    Would 2 sprays of the EdT be the olfactory equivalent of 1 spray of the EdP? Scent, longevity and sillage all identical?
    If not, why not?
    I'm only using Jicky as an example, I'm sure the actual percentages are different.

    Thanks!

    Matthew

  2. #2

    Default Re: Concentration question

    No, two reasons:

    1) There are reformulations for EdT and EdP, because...

    2) ... olfactory receptors are NOT linear for concentrations, and they don't follow the same scale for all aromachemicals. Doubling the amount of a certain aromachemical doesn't necessarily make it twice as loud.
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  3. #3
    Giustino's Avatar
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    Default Re: Concentration question

    see it as 2 beer. 1 beer was 4,5% alcohol, that means 2 beer have 4,5% because the amount of liquid changed, but not the % of the alcohol. haha. i guess you know what i mean.
    unico grande amore.

  4. #4

    Default Re: Concentration question

    Quote Originally Posted by Justin Wst View Post
    see it as 2 beer. 1 beer was 4,5% alcohol, that means 2 beer have 4,5% because the amount of liquid changed, but not the % of the alcohol. haha. i guess you know what i mean.
    Um. No. That was not an answer to the question.
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  5. #5
    andylama's Avatar
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    Default Re: Concentration question

    Quote Originally Posted by Stereotomy View Post
    No, two reasons:

    1) There are reformulations for EdT and EdP, because...

    2) ... olfactory receptors are NOT linear for concentrations, and they don't follow the same scale for all aromachemicals. Doubling the amount of a certain aromachemical doesn't necessarily make it twice as loud.
    This post pretty much nails the issue.

    Recently, there's a fair bit of talk about Guerlain's L'Instant ph EdT versus EdP. When smelling them side-by-side, they are clearly the same fragrance...but it isn't just that the EdP is stronger (it is, but not dramatically so). Since the concentration is different, the notes play out differently, and the overall character is subtly different.

    In this example, whereas you can smell all the same notes in both concentrations, the EdP has an abstracted 'strawberry jam-like' topnote that is present in the EdT, but sits in the background and fades with the topnotes, whereas in the EdP, it lasts well into the heart. Conversely, the EdT has an anisic note that seems drowned out in the EdP. (this is after just a couple of wearings and my armchair analysis)

    IMO, it's best to think of different concentrations as 'variations on the theme'. (except in ridiculous cases like Chanel #5, where the different concentrations are completely different fragrances altogether)
    Last edited by andylama; 2nd March 2009 at 07:27 PM.

  6. #6
    irish's Avatar
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    Default Re: Concentration question

    Also, you have to take into consideration the mount of alcohol and other carriers you are applying.
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  7. #7

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    Default Re: Concentration question

    I know this sounds really basic, but if you look at the wikpedia article titled 'perfumery' there is an excellent description of why different concentrations smell differently. Stereotomy and Andylama nail it, though. Not only do different concentrations cause the notes to play out differently, but the houses will often tweak the notes in the different concentrations for different effects. L'Instant is a great example. Other examples are Dior Homme, where the EdC, EdT, and EdP all highlight different aspects of the same 'theme'. Also Hermes' Eau/Elixir/Parfum de Merveilles family are all slightly different.

    Another reason multiple sprays of an EdT don't equal an EdP is because more of one concentration doesn't create the same effect as a stronger concentration, smell wise or longevity wise.

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